somesign
10-10-2006, 12:15 PM
I've found some fascinating stuff while browsing links with information available on pheremones and
human behaviour.
The following was excerpted from a paper entitled, "Human Pheromones: Integrating
Neuroendocrinology and Ethology", one of the contributing authors being James Kohl.
"Many authors have speculated
that both androstenone and androstenol are male pheromones, raising the questions of whether and how females
perceive them. Filsinger, Braun and Monte [62] showed that the application of androstenone to females led to
negative descriptions of males whereas the application of androstenol led to a description of males as being
sexually attractive. It has been shown repeatedly that females either find the odor of androstenol to be attractive,
or that the perception of this odor results in heightened female sexual arousal [63]. These results indicate that
androstenol can induce positive, while androstenone induces negative emotions towards males, and suggest that
androstenol may be a male pheromone that enhances attractiveness....... Maiworm [64] found that females perceive
males positively under exposure to androstenol and negatively under exposure to androstenone.....The role of
androstenol in any hypothetical signaling system is clear, since it seems to promote female sexual attraction
towards males. However, problems arise in attempts to determine the function of androstenone, which induces negative
female emotions towards males."
To me, these statements pose some esoteric questions, as by the authors' own
admissions androstenone appears to induce negative emotions towards males in females. Now these paragraphs are
indeed excerpts from a much larger body of work, but to my knowledge have not been taken out of context.
I ask
anyone who can shed some light, but particularly Mr. Kohl:
Does this information not preclude what should be an
implicit exclusion of androstenone in any synthetic pheremone mixture used as a female "attractant"? I am aware Mr.
Kohl did just that with SoE. Since androstenone appears to be the main ingredient in most mixtures in the
marketplace, does this not demonstrate that any perceived attraction is wholly in the mind of the person wearing the
androstenone mixture?
If these statements are true, to my mind any use of androstenone would constitute an
"OD". :think:
Any comments or feedback would be most appreciated.
human behaviour.
The following was excerpted from a paper entitled, "Human Pheromones: Integrating
Neuroendocrinology and Ethology", one of the contributing authors being James Kohl.
"Many authors have speculated
that both androstenone and androstenol are male pheromones, raising the questions of whether and how females
perceive them. Filsinger, Braun and Monte [62] showed that the application of androstenone to females led to
negative descriptions of males whereas the application of androstenol led to a description of males as being
sexually attractive. It has been shown repeatedly that females either find the odor of androstenol to be attractive,
or that the perception of this odor results in heightened female sexual arousal [63]. These results indicate that
androstenol can induce positive, while androstenone induces negative emotions towards males, and suggest that
androstenol may be a male pheromone that enhances attractiveness....... Maiworm [64] found that females perceive
males positively under exposure to androstenol and negatively under exposure to androstenone.....The role of
androstenol in any hypothetical signaling system is clear, since it seems to promote female sexual attraction
towards males. However, problems arise in attempts to determine the function of androstenone, which induces negative
female emotions towards males."
To me, these statements pose some esoteric questions, as by the authors' own
admissions androstenone appears to induce negative emotions towards males in females. Now these paragraphs are
indeed excerpts from a much larger body of work, but to my knowledge have not been taken out of context.
I ask
anyone who can shed some light, but particularly Mr. Kohl:
Does this information not preclude what should be an
implicit exclusion of androstenone in any synthetic pheremone mixture used as a female "attractant"? I am aware Mr.
Kohl did just that with SoE. Since androstenone appears to be the main ingredient in most mixtures in the
marketplace, does this not demonstrate that any perceived attraction is wholly in the mind of the person wearing the
androstenone mixture?
If these statements are true, to my mind any use of androstenone would constitute an
"OD". :think:
Any comments or feedback would be most appreciated.