James Kohl wrote:

1. A male is gay because he is receptive to male\'s pheromones, as opposed to female\'s...

2... human reports that homosexual males have ratios of androsterone to etiocholanolone that are representative of females.

Now, this doesn\'t make sense to me. If a gay male responds to male pheromones, but a gay male produces less male pheromones, then a gay male would be primarily attracted to heterosexual males and have a hard time getting off on other gay males.

Actually, the first statement seems credible. The second one doesn\'t. Aren\'t male pheromones a by-product of testosterone? Given the great muscular development common on gay men, I don\'t think most are lacking in testosterone!