Are all forms of
'none, as made by different manufacturers, equally effective if the quantity (mg's) is the same ? Is there just
one chemical form of it, or are there different qualities ? Thanks.
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Are all forms of
'none, as made by different manufacturers, equally effective if the quantity (mg's) is the same ? Is there just
one chemical form of it, or are there different qualities ? Thanks.
Any expert opinions out there ?
Thanks.
The chemical itself is unique.
A while back one of the other members was saying that different manufacturers produced -none of different grades. He
believed that there were levels of purity that impacted the scent but not the effectiveness. In other words, the
better quality of -none tended to stink less. I didn't agree with him but he seemed pretty sure of himself. Trying
to remember his name but coming up blank. If it comes to me I'll post it to help you search for his comments.
Thanks 'Bel.
I think there were also some
concerns about overall quality control. Some products maybe didn't contain the concentration they claimed to
contain. And the initial quality of the basic ingredients may have been sub-par as well. Also the possibility of
contaminents.
Just a quick thought. Too busy fighting first major snowfall and the crazy drivers.
That's true. Somebody I know
has tested a lot of the products and found many of them do not contain what they claim. I'd have to ask for the
details of the lab analysis but I've been told that the results weren't impressive at all, some containing almost
no pheromones at all.
Hey Chas,Quote:
Originally Posted by chas
this link
could help you.... :)
http://www.pherolibrary.com/forum/showthread.php?t=4690
SM - useful thread, thanks. Thanks
to the others for all your responses as well.
It seems that all 'none's should be equally effective but
might smell differently - due to varying purities after the production process. So it is the impurities which cause
the stronger smell for the same mg's ? :think: