View Full Version : optimum dose of 'none
Is there an
optimum effective dose of 'none ?
There are products such as Alpha7 with 6mg 'none & others with much less but
I've read that 'more is not necessarily better' at attraction.
Have there been any scientific experiments
which established an optimum level of 'none ?
Secondly, what effects are expected from Androstadienone ?
Mtnjim
11-24-2009, 04:15 PM
Depends on your age and the age of
your targets. The older, the more you can use.
And I for one am not sure
androstenone really creates "attraction" but more a submissivness in females and agresssion in men.
Androstedienone seems to be more "comfort" to females (and hence perhaps more "receptiveness") and may tone down
the agression in males (called by some "depression" but I think that's the wrong term).
My opinions.
And
no, there is no optimum dose for ANY pheromone or cologne or anyting else because it depends on far too many
individual variables.
DaveRam
11-28-2009, 10:38 PM
Everyone is different, so
optimal dose of pheromones would be 'your' optimal dose. The key is to experiment and to pay close attention to
people's reaction.
And no, 'more' is not precisely better, again, depends on your chemistry, race, age, mood,
good health even blood type among a never ending variables to determine that.
So, use what's best for you.
That's the beauty of pheromones :drunk:
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